My original point was Andy has taken the LTA cash so if he withdraws from the Davis Cup what returns do they get.
He wants the money but not the obligations and is spinning it to suit with a lame excuse about picking up injuries.
But he is being hypocritical by tolerating the same risk of injury in other non atp ranking events when the price is right.
What is it that you don't get? Like banging my head off a brick wall.
Murray played that tournament as a tune up for the Davis Cup. He was not contradicting himself. If a Davis Cup match wasn't coming up he probably wouldn't have played in it (although he may have for match practice after his injury anyway). He needed the matches, though. If he risks injury when he has pulled out of the Davis Cup, you can moan all you want. When he is entering an event simply to get prepare for the Davis Cup, your entire argument just looks completely backwards.
I believe Federer and Nadal have avoided Davis Cup duty for the same reasons as Andy. Did they compete in the battle of the surfaces for the money? The tournament in which Murray competed is a tennis tournament, much more so than a half grass, half clay court. And Murray had legitimate reasons for competing, ones which James Blake did not have. Is every other player who competed also a money-grabber?
How do you know he wants the money without the obligations? I'm quite ceratin Andy didn't ask the LTA to fund him. And I'm equally certain that he wouldn't complain if it was withdrawn as a result of his not representing GB. Not that the Davis Cup is Andy's only value to the LTA. He raises the profile of British tennis. His success breeds interest. From interest more kids start playing, and the better the chance we have of unearthing a similarly talented youngster. So even if Andy withdraws from Davis Cup, their continued support of him is in Britain's best interests.
You presuppose so many things to aid your argument. Everything you have said is contradictory. He shouldn't risk injury at "Mickey Mouse" tournaments if he's not willing to risk injury at the Davis Cup. He *is* playing the Davis Cup, though, and playing in that "Mickey Mouse" tournament to prepare for it. Your argument is only valid once Murray stops playing in the Davis Cup. If at that point he is appearing in novelty competitions, snipe all you like. Until then stop going around in circles trying to support an argument that contradicts itself.
I can't say for sure, but this link states that the Aberdeen Cup was a success:
http://sport.scotsman.com/topics.cfm?tid=1016&id=1748202006